CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025: The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has successfully administered the Class 10 Social Science Examination today, February 25, 2025. Students who participated in the SST Board Exam 2025 can now access the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 along with its answers on this page. Additionally, a comprehensive analysis of the CBSE Class 10 SST Question Paper 2025, based on insights from students and subject experts, is also available here. Please scroll down to obtain the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025, including a free PDF of the question papers for SET 1, 2, and 3.
As per the official CBSE 10th Date Sheet 2025, the CBSE Class 10 SST Exam 2025 was conducted on February 25th and will run until March 18, 2025. The examination is held in a pen-and-paper format. To achieve a score of 90 or above in the Class 10 CBSE Social Science Board Exam, it is advisable to practice SST sample papers, review important CBSE Class 10 SST Question Papers, and focus on frequently asked questions to better understand the exam structure, weightage, and syllabus. The detailed analysis of the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 will provide a comprehensive overview of the types of questions presented in today’s examination across various sets
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025
.The CBSE Class 10 Social Science examination is a significant component of the Board Exam, accounting for 100 marks of the total score. Scheduled for February 25, the board paper encompasses essential subjects such as history, geography, political science, and economics. To assist students, we have provided the complete CBSE Class 10 SST Answer Key 2025 for all sets, prepared by subject matter experts. By utilizing the CBSE Class 10th Question Paper along with the answer key, students can estimate their potential scores and identify areas needing improvement.
CBSE Class 10th SST Question Paper 2025 PDF Download for Free
After the conclusion of the exam, students can download the CBSE 10th Social Science Question Paper 2025 from the table provided. Additional resources, including CBSE Class 10 Social Science Practice Questions and Sample Papers, are also available below.
CBSE Class 10 SST Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key PDF Download (Free)
Set No
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Class 10th Social Science Question Paper 2025 Set 1
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 Set 2
Q3. Identify the correctly matched pair from the options below: (a) Concurrent List – Education (b) Concurrent List – Defence (c) Concurrent List – Police (d) Concurrent List – Trade Answer: (a) Concurrent List – Education
Q4. Which of the following statements reflects the concept of gender equality? (a) The value of a woman’s vote is greater than that of a man’s. (b) Confined roles for women in domestic tasks. (c) Granting additional rights to men. (d) Ensuring equal voting rights for both men and women. Answer: (d) Ensuring equal voting rights for both men and women.
Q5. To reform the political party system, which of the following requirements have been mandated for political parties? Select the most suitable option. I. All political parties must file income tax returns. II. All parties must nominate one-third of women candidates. III. All political parties are required to conduct organizational elections. IV. All candidates must disclose information regarding pending criminal cases against them via affidavit. Options: (a) Only I, II, and III are correct. (b) Only I, II, and IV are correct. (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct. (d) Only II, III, and IV are correct. Answer: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
Q6. Which group constitutes the majority in Sri Lanka? (a) Tamil-speakers (b) Sinhala-speakers (c) Telugu-speakers (d) English-speakers
Answer: (b) Sinhala speakers Question 7: Two statements are presented below, labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Please review both statements and select the correct option: Assertion (A): All political parties in India are required to register with the Election Commission. Reason (R): The Government allocates election symbols to every political party in India. Options: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) accurately explains (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not accurately explain (A). (c) (A) is true, while (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, while (R) is true. Answer: (c) (A) is true, while (R) is false.
The attendance rate for individuals aged 14 and 15 in this country is _ (a) 90 per cent (b) 80 per cent (c) 70 per cent (d) 60 per cent Answer: (b) 80 percent
Question 9: Determine the sector based on the following characteristics and select the correct option:
The primary goal of this sector is profit generation.
This sector is owned by an individual or a corporation.
Tata Iron and Steel serves as an example of this sector. Options: (a) Cooperative Sector (b) Unorganised Sector (c) Public Sector (d) Private Sector Answer: (d) Private Sector
Question 10: What makes obtaining loans from the formal sector challenging? Consider the following reasons and select the most suitable option:
I. Presence of Banks II. Requirement of Collateral III. Lengthy and Complex Loan Procedures IV. Borrower Awareness Options: (a) Only I, II, and III are correct. (b) Only II, III, and IV are correct. (c) Only I, II, and IV are correct. (d) Only I, III, and IV are correct. Answer: (b) Only II, III, and IV are correct.
Question 11: Which organization is responsible for publishing the Human Development Report? (a) World Trade Organisation (b) Amnesty International (c) United Nations Development Programme (d) World Health Organisation Answer: (c) United Nations Development Programme.
Q12. Determine the item that does not belong to the group. (a) Hindustan Computers Limited (b) Bharti Airtel Limited (c) Hindustan Unilever Limited (d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited S12. Answer: (d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Q13. Select the appropriate option to complete the statement: The act of eliminating restrictions on international trade and investment by the government is referred to as _. Options: (a) Import Tax (b) Export Tax (c) Liberalisation (d) Industrialisation Answer: (c) Liberalisation
Assertion (A): A significant portion of the jute industry in India is situated in a narrow corridor along the banks of the Hugli River. Reason (R): India ranks as the second largest exporter of jute. Options: (a) Both (A) and (R) are accurate, and (R) correctly explains (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are accurate, but (R) does not correctly explain (A). (c) (A) is accurate, but (R) is inaccurate. (d) (A) is inaccurate, but (R) is accurate. Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are accurate, but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 Set 2 Code 32/3/2
Which organization is responsible for publishing the Human Development Report? (A) World Trade Organization (B) Amnesty International (C) United Nations Development Programme (D) World Health Organization Answer: (C) United Nations Development Programme
Identify the item that is different from the others. (A) Hindustan Computers Limited (B) Bharti Airtel Limited (C) Hindustan Unilever Limited (D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited Answer: (B) Bharti Airtel Limited
The act of removing barriers to foreign trade and investment by the government is known as _.
Two statements are presented below, identified as Assertion [A] and Reason [R]. Please read both statements and select the appropriate option: Assertion [A]: The majority of the jute industry in India is situated in a narrow strip along the banks of the Hooghly River. Reason [R]: India ranks as the second largest exporter of jute. Options: (A) Both A and R are true, and R provides the correct explanation for A. (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not serve as the correct explanation for A. (C) A is true, while R is false. (D) A is false, but R is true. Answer: B) Both A and R are true, but R does not serve as the correct explanation for A.
Match the items in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option: (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Mrs. Monica, together with her family, clears a section of land to cultivate grains and other food crops for their sustenance. When the soil’s fertility diminishes, she prepares another area for farming. Which method of agriculture does she practice? (A) Plantation farming (B) Slash and burn farming (C) Intensive subsistence farming (D) Commercial farming Answer: (B) Slash and burn farming
Which disease’s germs facilitated Europe’s conquest of America in the latter half of the sixteenth century? (A) Cholera (B) Smallpox (C) Jaundice (D) Malaria Answer: (B) Smallpox
In the context of the Germania allegory, what does the “olive branch around the sword” symbolize? (A) Being afraid (B) Heroism and strength (C) Willingness to make peace (D) Beginning of a new era Answer: (C) Willingness to make peace
Which of the following newspapers is associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak? (A) Hindustan (B) Bangla Patrika (C) Veer Bhoomi (D) Kesari Answer: (D) Kesari
Arrange the subsequent historical events in their chronological sequence and select the correct option: I. Bardoli Satyagraha II. Rawalpindi Satyagraha III. Champaran Satyagraha IV. Kheda Satyagraha (A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, III, IV, I (C) III, IV, II, I (D) III, IV, II, I Answer: (C) III, IV, II, I
What makes it challenging to obtain loans from the formal sector? Consider the following reasons and select the most suitable option: I. Availability of banks II. Availability of collateral III. Lengthy and complex loan process IV. Borrower awareness (A) Only I, II, and III are correct (B) Only II, III, and IV are correct (C) Only I, II, and IV are correct (D) Only I, III, and IV are correct Answer: (B) Only II, III, and IV are correct
Identify the sector based on the following characteristics and select the correct option: The aim of this sector is to generate profit. This sector is owned by an individual or a corporation. Tata Iron and Steel serves as an example of this sector. (A) Cooperative sector (B) Unorganised sector (C) Public sector (D) Private sector Answer: (D) Private sector
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025 Set 3 (32/3/3)
Arrange the following historical events in the correct chronological sequence and select the appropriate option:
I. Bardoli Satyagraha II. Rowlatt Satyagraha III. Champaran Satyagraha IV. Kheda Satyagraha Options: (A) I, II, III, IV (B) III, II, I, IV (C) II, I, IV, III (D) III, IV, II, I (Answer)
Which of the following newspapers is associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak? (A) Hindustan (B) Bangla Patrika (C) Veer Bhoomi (D) Kesari (Answer)
In the context of the Germania allegory, what does the “olive branch around the sword” represent? (A) Being freed (B) Heroism and strength (C) Willingness to make peace (Answer) (D) Beginning of a new era
Which disease’s germs facilitated Europe’s conquest of America in the latter half of the sixteenth century? (A) Cholera (B) Smallpox (Answer) (C) Jaundice (D) Malaria
Mrs. Monica, together with her family, cultivates a piece of land to grow grains and other food crops for their sustenance. When the soil’s fertility diminishes, she prepares another plot for farming. What type of agricultural method is she employing? (A) Plantation farming (B) Slash and burn farming (Answer) (C) Intensive subsistence farming (D) Commercial farming
Match the items in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option: Options: (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (Answer) (C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Two statements are presented below, labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Evaluate both statements and select the correct option: Assertion (A): The majority of the jute industry in India is situated in a narrow strip along the banks of the Hugli River. Reason (R): India ranks as the second largest exporter of jute. Options: (A) Both (A) and (R
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key Analysis 2025
The Class 10 Social Science examination has concluded, and we have provided a comprehensive analysis based on feedback from students and subject matter experts. This analysis offers students valuable insights into the exam’s difficulty level and the potential marks that can be anticipated by the majority. Furthermore, the CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam analysis for 2025 will serve as a guide for students regarding the types of questions that may appear in future assessments.
Students Reaction on CBSE Class 10 SST Question Paper 2025
Initial feedback indicates that the CBSE Class 10 Social Science Paper for 2025 ranged from easy to moderately difficult. The examination featured a well-rounded combination of theoretical, map-based, and case-study questions.
Many students found the paper manageable, particularly those who engaged with NCERT textbooks and practiced previous years’ question papers.
The map-based questions were clear and directly aligned with the syllabus.
Case-based and assertion-reasoning questions required logical reasoning and a deep understanding of the concepts.
Some students faced challenges with time management, especially concerning long-answer questions that demanded detailed explanations.
Teacher’s Review on CBSE Class 10th SST Question Paper 2025
According to subject experts, the CBSE Class 10th SST question paper for 2025 was well-structured and encompassed all significant topics, with no unexpected or out-of-syllabus content.
A solid conceptual understanding was essential for effectively addressing case-based and assertion-based questions.
Educators believe that students who utilize NCERT materials and practice sample papers are likely to excel.
The examination evaluated both academic knowledge and analytical abilities, ensuring a fair and organized assessment.
Students who prioritize conceptual understanding over rote memorization are expected to perform well in the CBSE examination.
CBSE 10th SST Question Paper 2025 Pattern
Students preparing for the SST examination scheduled for tomorrow should familiarize themselves with its structure and employ effective strategies to achieve a high score. The pattern of the social science paper is as follows:
Duration: 3 hours.
Total Marks: 80.
The question paper comprises six sections: A, B, C, D, E, and F, containing a total of 37 mandatory questions.
Section A includes questions 1–20, which are multiple-choice questions (MCQs) valued at 1 mark each.
Section B consists of questions 21-24, which require very short answers and are worth 2 marks each. Responses should not exceed 40 words.
Section C features short answer questions (Q.25-Q.29) that carry 3 marks each, with answers limited to 60 words.
Section D contains extended answer questions (30–33), each worth 5 marks.
Answers in this section should not exceed 120 words.
Section E includes questions 34-36, which are case-based and consist of three sub-questions, each valued at 4 marks. Responses should be limited to 100 words.
Section F features question 37, which is map-based and worth 5 marks, divided into two parts: 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
The question paper does not offer overall choice; however, some questions provide internal choices, of which only one option should be attempted.
Specific instructions are provided for each section and question as necessary.
This section presents the CBSE 10th Social Science Questions for 2025, covering History, Geography, Economics, and Political Science.
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Answer Key 2025
Q 1. What was the outcome of the peace negotiations in Geneva that occurred after the French defeat in Vietnam? (2016 D) Answer: The peace negotiations in Geneva, which followed the French defeat, resulted in the Vietnamese agreeing to the partition of the country. This division established North and South Vietnam, with Ho Chi Minh and the communists assuming control in the North, while Bao Dai’s regime was established in the South.
Q. Who was the leader of the ‘Scholar Revolt’ in Vietnam in 1868? (2016 0D) Answer: The “Scholar Revolt” in Vietnam in 1868 was spearheaded by officials from the imperial court.
Q. Outline the infrastructural developments initiated by the French colonizers in Vietnam. (2012 D, 2012 OD) Answer: The French colonizers implemented several infrastructural projects in Vietnam: They constructed canals and drained land in the Mekong Delta to enhance agricultural output. These irrigation systems significantly boosted rice production, facilitating its export to global markets. Additionally, transport networks were established to facilitate the movement of goods for trade and the deployment of military forces. The French initiated information projects to aid in the transportation of goods, including the construction of a trans-Indo-China railway network that connected northern and southern Vietnam, as well as Yunnan in China. A second railway line was developed to link Vietnam with Siam through the Cambodian capital of Phnom Penh.
Q. Discuss the reactions within the United States regarding its involvement in the Vietnam War during the 1960s. (2011 D) Answer: The involvement of the United States in the Vietnam War during the 1960s elicited significant reactions domestically: A considerable number of citizens became critical of the government for engaging in what they perceived as an unjust war. Discontent grew among the youth due to the government’s discriminatory practices, as compulsory military service predominantly affected minorities and working-class families, while the privileged elite were largely exempt. Furthermore, U.S. media and films played a crucial role in both encouraging youth participation in the war and in voicing opposition to it, highlighting the war’s perceived irrationality.
Q. Name the two athletes who protested at the Mexico Olympics in 1968. Answer: Tommie Smith and John Carlos.
Q. What actions did the African-American athletes take to highlight ‘black poverty’ during the Mexico Olympics? (2012) Answer: During the 1968 Mexico Olympics, African-American athletes Tommie Smith and John Carlos engaged in a protest to raise global awareness of ‘black poverty’. They secured the gold and bronze medals, respectively, and chose to receive their awards barefoot and wearing black socks to symbolize the plight of black poverty. While on the podium, they raised their fists in a gesture of solidarity and bowed their heads, representing ‘black power’. They intended to shed light on the issue of racial discrimination prevalent in the United States.
Q. Define the term ‘migrant’. Answer: A migrant is an individual who relocates from one area or country to another, typically in search of employment or better opportunities.
Q. Explain the concept of democracy. (2017 OD) Answer: Democracy is generally understood as a system of governance in which leaders are chosen by the populace. Representatives are selected through elections that are conducted in a free and fair manner.
Social Science Class 10 Geography Questions 2025
Q. “Resources are a function of human activities.” Justify this statement. Answer: The mere existence of resources in nature does not qualify them as resources. Human involvement is crucial, as individuals convert available materials in the environment into usable resources. The effectiveness of these resources is influenced by the cultural development of humanity and the tools and technologies employed.
Q. Classify resources based on their exhaustibility and provide two examples of each category. Answer: Resources can be categorized based on exhaustibility into Renewable and Non-renewable resources. Renewable Resources: These are resources that can be replenished through natural processes, such as water, wildlife, forests, solar energy, and wind energy.
Q. How are natural resources important for man? Provide five points. Answer: The significance of resources for humanity is profound. They are essential for human existence and play a crucial role in enhancing the quality of life, as individuals rely on the bio-physical environment to fulfill their needs. Natural resources serve as the foundation of a nation’s economy. These resources are integral to the economic strength and prosperity of its populace. They supply the necessary materials, energy, and conducive conditions for development.
Q. Classify the economy based on the nature of the activity. (2015) Answer: The economy can be categorized into three sectors based on economic activities: the Primary sector, the Secondary sector, and the Tertiary sector.
Q. Identify the sector in which the government possesses the majority of assets and delivers all services. (2013) Answer: Public Sector
Q. What is meant by disguised unemployment? (2012) Answer: Disguised unemployment refers to a scenario where more individuals are engaged in a job than is necessary.
Q. Which sector remained the largest employer even in the year 2000? (2014) Answer: The primary sector remained the largest employer even in the year 2000.
Q. The production of a commodity, primarily through natural processes, is an activity of which sector? (2013) Answer: Primary Sector
Q. An ATM is an example of which sector? (2014) Answer: Tertiary sector
Q. How many days of guaranteed employment are provided under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005? (2014) Answer: The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 guarantees 100 days of employment.
